Why Did Nephi Use the Word ‘Jew’ 1,800 Yrs. before it was a Word?

30 July

 

1 Nephi 14:23 “Wherefore, the things which he shall write are just and true; and behold they are written in the book which thou beheld proceeding out of the mouth of the Jew; and at the time they proceeded out of the mouth of the Jew, or, at the time the book proceeded out of the mouth of the Jew, the things which were written were plain and pure, and most precious and easy to the understanding of all men.” – BC 600

Jeremiah 14:14 “Then the Lord said unto me, The prophets prophesy lies in my name: I sent them not, neither have I commanded them, neither spake unto them: they prophesy unto you a false vision and divination, and a thing of nought, and the deceit of their heart.”

Anachronisms abound in the Book of Mormon…If they were really there, why didn’t they listen to Jeremiah?

The English word Jew wasn’t actually known much less used, until the 12th century. It comes from Middle English which originated from the French/Latin word  juiu.  Why was Nephi using it, and where did he get this if the BoM is truly inspired? Remember, Smith claimed there was neither Greek, nor Latin on the plates!

Times & Seasons, vol. 4 (November 1842-November 1843): p. 194; “…There was no Greek or Latin upon the plates from which I, through the grace of God, translated the Book of Mormon Let the language of that book speak for itself.”

This is yet another reason not to trust the BoM, and a reminder to pray for the dear people who believe Joe Smith’s lies.

With Love in Christ;

Michelle

1 Cor 1:18

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2 Responses to “Why Did Nephi Use the Word ‘Jew’ 1,800 Yrs. before it was a Word?”

  1. Patrick July 31, 2018 at 6:30 am #

    The same argument can be made for the word “the” or “proceeding”. It’s called a translation.

  2. Anonymous August 1, 2018 at 4:30 pm #

    The bible also uses the term “Jew.” This is a very weak argument against the BOM.

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