Romans 16:18 “For they that are such serve not our Lord Jesus Christ, but their own belly; and by good words and fair speeches deceive the hearts of the simple.”
2 Nephi 5:8 “And my people would that we should call the name of the place Nephi; wherefore, we did call it Nephi.”
2 Maccabees 1:34-36 “Then the king, inclosing the place, made it holy, after he had tried the matter. 35 And the king took many gifts, and bestowed thereof on those whom he would gratify. 36 And Neemias called this thing Naphthar, which is as much as to say, a cleansing: but many men call it Nephi.”
We found it very telling the Church would brazenly advertise that Smith used a KJV, complete with the Apocrypha, to rewrite the Bible with nary a concern. Our interest about this stems from his track record of blasting the Catholic church, and even referring to her as the ‘whore of the earth’ in the Book of Mormon.
1 Nephi 14:10 “And he said unto me: Behold there are save two churches only; the one is the church of the Lamb of God, and the other is the church of the devil; wherefore, whoso belongeth not to the church of the Lamb of God belongeth to that great church, which is the mother of abominations; and she is the whore of all the earth.”
Why did Smith use the Catholic bible as a format when he supposedly ‘translated’ the golden plates? The Israelites weren’t using the Apocrypha.
The setting for 2nd Maccabees took place c. BC 161.
The setting for 2 Nephi 5:8 supposedly took place c. BC 588.
How did Nephi know what the Apocrypha would say 427 years before it was written?
Why did Smith believe the Bible needed to be rewritten? God’s word clearly states it won’t pass away! Matthew 24:35.
Why did he use a Bible with the Apocrypha to rewrite the KJV?
If you’re LDS, what are your thoughts about this?
If you’re Christian, we ask that you pray for the Mormon people – please!
With Love in Christ;