2 Nephi 31:3; “For my soul delighteth in plainness; for after this manner doth the Lord God work among the children of men. For the Lord God giveth light unto the understanding; for he speaketh unto men according to their language, unto their understanding.”
Jeremiah 9:25-26; “Behold, the days come, saith the LORD, that I will punish all them which are circumcised with the uncircumcised; 26 Egypt, and Judah, and Edom, and the children of Ammon, and Moab, and all that are in the utmost corners, that dwell in the wilderness: for all these nations are uncircumcised, and all the house of Israel are uncircumcised in the heart.”
If this was true then why do they insist on using only the KJV? I don’t speak 1611 English in my daily life and more importantly why were the Nephites speaking a form of Egyptian when in fact the Israelites didn’t associate themselves with the Egyptians?
For centuries God had warned the Israelites to stay away from the idols of Egypt and when you look at the history between Israel and Egypt it’s not too hard to figure out why. From their bondage back in the days of Moses and further back to the time God leveled Sodom and Gomorrah their behavioral history is less than stellar. God’s love for His children is manifested in the way He went about protecting them from the idolatry that plagued Egypt and her inhabitants.
With all that does it stand to reason the Israelites would be speaking a “reformed” type of Egyptian? It sounds an awful lot like the reformed type of the gospel. Why would Christians partake of this falsehood?