2 Nephi 29:10; “Wherefore, because that ye have a Bible ye need not suppose that it contains all my words; neither need ye suppose that I have not caused more to be written.”
Proverbs 30:5-6; “Every word of God is pure: he is a shield unto them that put their trust in him. 6 Add thou not unto his words, lest he reprove thee, and thou be found a liar.”
Why is an Israelite tempting another Israelite to read other works not from God? Did Smith not know Jews don’t use the Bible and especially in 600 BC?