Why Did Abraham Use 16th c. Latin in bc 1900?
Abraham 1:28; “But I shall endeavor, hereafter, to delineate the chronology running back from myself to the beginning of the creation, for the records have come into my hands, which I hold unto this present time.” [emp. mine]
Deuteronomy 11:16;“Take heed to yourselves, that your heart be not deceived, and ye turn aside, and serve other gods, and worship them”.
Today we’re looking at one word taken from the Book of Abraham. Joe Smith claimed he translated papyri he purchased from a traveling salesman, Michael Chandler, c.1832.
For the sake of time, and to keep focused on our topic at hand, we’re looking at one word in Abraham chapter 1, and that word is ‘delineate’.
If Joseph Smith was truly commissioned by the Lord to translate ancient Egyptian scrolls into modern 19th century English, why is the word ‘delineate’ in its text? This is a Latin word, originating in 1550 AD. Is it reasonable to believe Abraham would’ve used such a word c. BC 1900? See Amazing Bible Timeline for more info.
Be sure to pray for the Mormons who believe this lie, and ask your Mormon friends/loved ones what they think of this!
With Love in Christ;
Michelle
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