2 Nephi 31:5-7; “And now, if the Lamb of God, he being holy, should have need to be baptized by water, to fulfil all righteousness, O then, how much more need have we, being unholy, to be baptized, yea, even by water! 6 And now, I would ask of you, my beloved brethren, wherein the Lamb of God did fulfil all righteousness in being baptized by water? 7 Know ye not that he was holy? But notwithstanding he being holy, he showeth unto the children of men that, according to the flesh he humbleth himself before the Father, and witnesseth unto the Father that he would be obedient unto him in keeping his commandments.”

Matthew 3:13-17; “Then cometh Jesus from Galilee to Jordan unto John, to be baptized of him. 14 But John forbad him, saying, I have need to be baptized of thee, and comest thou to me? 15 And Jesus answering said unto him, Suffer it to be so now: for thus it becometh us to fulfil all righteousness. Then he suffered him. 16 And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: 17 And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.”

1.Why should Mormons continue to believe this false canon?

2.How could Jesus be the Lamb of God in BC 559? This phrase shows up only 6 times in the Bible, and they’re all in the New Testament.

3.Who would’ve been baptizing people in BC 559?

4.When the Israelites were under Babylonian captivity, they couldn’t even sacrifice animals, much less baptizing each other. They were allowed to return to Jerusalem c. BC 537 through the permission of King Cyrus. See GotQuestions.org

4.What purpose does this passage serve today for a Mormon like my mother?

Please share these questions with a Mormon you know, and let them know you’re concerned!